The sleazy things regarding the invasion of Italy

Allies invaded Italy on 3 September 1943.

At first sight, the invasion of Italy seems normal. It seems logical that the Allies wanted to open a second front right away.

But when you study more closely how things happened, you see that, once again, there is something fishy.

The fishy thing is the fact that just when the Allies were on the verge of invading Italy, Mussolini was thrown out of the power.

And what is fishier is how things happened. On 24 July 1943, The Grand Council of Fascism met. It was the first time that this body had met since the start of the war. One of the resolutions on the agenda asked the king to resume his full constitutional powers; to the detriment of Mussolini of course. This motion carried by a 19-7 margin. The next day, Mussolini was arrested by Carabinieri on king's orders.

The problem is that such things can't happen. It's just ridiculous. Mussolini would have seen the motion proposal on the agenda of the meeting. And faithful subordinates would have warned him about it. Then, Mussolini would have immediately put in jail or more probably killed the guys who had proposed the meeting.

Even if he had let the Council meet, he would have sent the conspirators to prison during the Council, or just after (or killed them).

Even the demand of a Grand Council of Fascism meeting, at this very moment would have obviously seemed extremely suspicious for Mussolini, or for anybody with an IQ above 20. You are losing the war, the national territory is now under attack, and someone wants suddenly to meet the Grand Council, a council whish hasn't met since the beginning of the war? You would of course think: "Hey guys, aren't you trying to oust me from power? Do you really think I'm gonna let you do this"?

Those guys would in fact never have dared to meet the council. They would have been sure that Mussolini would have made them killed for treason right away.

And they would have known that Hitler would send his troops in Italy and would destroy their work after just one week, making all those efforts and risks totally worthless. And the German troops being already present in Italy, the conspirators would have known they had a high risk of being taken by them and being executed.

Hitler's strategic mistakes between 1941 and 1942 in Russia were made on purpose

As we have already seen it, Hitler was just a lieutenant of Jewish leaders (as Roosevelt, Stalin, Churchill, Blum, Mussolini, Franco, etc…). His main role was to allow the creation of Israel and to push ordinary jews to emigrate there. Once his work accomplished, he wouldn't be needed anymore. So, his role as Nazi leader was meant to last only a limited period of time. It means he had to succeed at the beginning, and then to start losing. As all the sides were under control, the entire war was staged (by Jewish leaders).

Regarding the Russian campaign, Hitler's army was supposed to be vastly superior and to have great successes at the beginning, and very soon after, to stop winning. As the result couldn't be left to chance, Hitler the Jewish agent (and his generals) had to make voluntary mistakes in order to lose at the end. Same thing for Stalin.

Let's see the official history.

Before Operation Barbarossa

Even before the Russian campaign, Hitler has made errors.

He doesn't mobilize all Germany. This will lead to a lack of soldiers during Barbarossa and after. It will also lead to a lack of equipment.

German tanks have a very complicated design; thus, they are produced extremely slowly. Whereas Russian tanks are much more standardized and can be produced en masse.

Even if German soldiers were trained in Russia during the rearmament period, it seems that German generals don't know the rasputitsa (moment of the year when the ground becomes very muddy). Therefore, their tanks aren't adapted to it. 

1941: operation Barbarossa

Anyway, Hitler invades Russia in June 22 1941. Stalin is totally surprised by the invasion, thus the Russian army is unprepared. Because of that, the disorganization is complete. The German army is also largely superior to the Russian one (better organization, more mobile, better officers, etc…). It allows Germans forces to win easily at first, using blitzkrieg strategy.

There are three German army groups (north, center, and south).

Army Group Center is the most powerful. It's the one which makes most of the prisoners. By using blitzkrieg, they encircle Russians at Bialystok and Minsk between 22nd June and 3rd July and make at first 420.000 soldiers. 1.500 canons, 2.500 tanks and 1.669 airplanes are also captured. But, the encirclement is not perfect and many soldiers are able to escape, thus, only 290.000 are taken at the end.

For Army Group North, the strategy was different. They weren't supposed to encircle Russian troops, but to make a breakthrough with the panzers and make them advance as quickly as possible toward Leningrad.

Army Group South beats Russian at Brody, between June 23-29. The 9th July, they are at 75 km of Kiev and 40 km after Ternopil.

 

As Germany shouldn't win, first mistakes and fatalities had to happen after the first success. Otherwise, Germans would have won very quickly.

The strange clemency of the USA and Britain toward Germany after World War I

Just after WWI, the treaty of Versailles (June 1919) forced Germany to pay reparations to several countries it had fought. Germany had to pay 20 billion gold-marks before May 1921. A commission had to estimate the total amount of reparations Germany would finally pay. In 1921, at the conference of London, the final estimation of the amount due was 132 billion gold-marks. The repartition was the following: France 52 %, England 22 %, Belgium 10 %, Italy 8 %, and 8 % for other Allies.

But, immediately, voices in England said the reparations were unfair for Germany and bad for the European economy. It started with a book from the famous economist John Maynard Keynes "The Economic Consequences of the Peace" (1919), which knew a great success.

Those fears about economic problems caused by the payment of reparations seemed to become real when hyperinflation hit Germany (between 1923 and 1924). At least, the USA and England seemed to think so. Then, Germany declared it could not pay the reparations and asked for a moratorium.

Quickly, the USA, more and more followed by England, didn't stop pushing for a decrease of the amount of reparations and finally, for an annulation of them.

France, on the other side, which had been hit very hard by the war, defended the idea that reparations had to be paid until the last gold-mark. When Germany said in 1923 it couldn't pay, France, with Belgium, invaded the Ruhr in order to get paid (by taking control of mines, industries, etc…). But, being under the pressure of the USA and England and isolated diplomatically, France finally evacuated the Ruhr in 1925. And progressively, it accepted more and more decreases of the German reparations, until finally, the payment ceased.

So, the USA and England were indeed very merciful with Germany.

Yes, 99 % of websites saying Hitler was a jew or an agent are made by jews

In the nationalist community, many people say that the stories of Hitler being a jew are bullshit, because they are told by jews. In the conspirationist community they say they are told by jews, or illuminati agents or CIA agents, etc… So, for them, those stories are phony.

And yes, they are right.

Indeed, 99 % of the websites saying Hitler was a jew are run by jews and are talking bullshit.

So, it is perfectly understandable that most of those people think that Hitler wasn't a jew or an agent and that those stories are phony.

In the conspirationist community, people are more receptive to the idea that Hitler was a jew or a mason. So, there are much more people believing that Hitler was not what he seemed to be than in the nationalist community. But usually, they are more easily deceived about the whole story than nationalists who have begun to understand what all this was about.

The question is: why would Jewish leaders do such a thing?

At first sight, it doesn't make any sense.

If it was false, if Hitler was really a Gentile Nazi, why would Jewish leaders make so many websites of this kind? It wouldn't make any sense. I mean, they have a golden story. With Hitler being a real Gentile Nazi, they have the perfect Gentile bad guy. They can make Gentiles feel guilty during centuries about the bad Hitler killing poor jews, and the vile Gentiles doing nothing to stop him. They have the perfect incarnation of evil. It has worked perfectly well for 60 years. Why would they kill the goose that lays the golden eggs? Why introduce confusion?

Henry Ford was a jew or a freemason and his "anti-Semitism" was staged

I have quickly talked about Ford in the previous article. I am going to study his case further.

According to the official history, in 1920, Henry Ford bought a newspaper called "The Deadborn Independent". He transformed it into an anti-Semite newspaper (of course, for people conscious about Jewish plots, it was not "anti-Semite", but helped people to be more conscious about Jewish power and plans: I use the word anti-Semite just for convenience). Journalists wrote the papers; but they signed many of them "Henry Ford". Ford didn't stop this, because he didn't read the papers, just the titles (according to his own words). In 1920, he published also a book (written from the newspaper articles): "The international jew". Jews pressured him to stop publishing the journal and the book, which he did in 1927.

There are several problems with this story.

First, if Ford was the president of such a huge company, it was certainly because he was either a jew, or a mason. The USA has been controlled by jews since the beginning. Founders of America were freemasons, thus Jewish puppets. So, it was impossible for a simple Gentile to become the owner of such a big company. They can own little or medium companies, but not huge ones. Considering that he was either a jew or a mason, Henry Ford publishing an anti-Semite newspaper didn't make any sense. The only thing which could make sense is that he was ordered to do so.

Second problem, it is said in his biography that he was not good at writing and reading during his school years. It means he most probably didn't like reading. We can add to this that his career most probably was consuming all his time, so he didn't even had time to read. Thus, how did he come to know about Jewish plots, when almost nobody was talking about them? In 1918, in the USA, someone add to read a huge amount of books to finally come to know just a little bit about the Jewish power. Only people who like reading a lot, that is intellectuals, could do that. And even in that case, it was very difficult to come to those ideas, since nearly nobody talked about the Jewish problem in America at this time (just few intellectuals were doing that in Europe). And even with this knowledge, someone had to be able to accept it. Without having quite strong political opinions or being extremely open minded, it was very difficult to think it wasn't bullshit. It is still the case in 2013 for most people; so, in 1918, in the USA, it was considerably more difficult.

Nationalist movements and individuals in France, England, and the USA were also phony

Of course, all the presidents of democratic countries and dictators involved in WWII were jews. Their political movements were also full of jews. But there was another case. In democratic countries, there were also famous Anti-Semite or racists individuals, and nationalist movements which didn't succeed (into taking the power). All of them were jews (or at least freemasons) or run by jews. As Jewish leaders were able to control much greater and powerful political movements, it was kids play for them to do that.

As they didn't succeed in promoting their ideas or taking the power, people think they were real nationalists or Anti-semites. Real ones who were blocked on the road of power or were silenced (for individuals) because of the jews running those countries. 

But, they were indeed jews. Their role was to make people think that racism and anti-Semitism was plaguing every important country. You couldn't have, dictators, fascists or Nazis in Italy, Spain, Portugal, Germany, Greece, etc…, and not having anti-Semites, racists, or anti-democratic movements and individuals in France, USA and Britain. Anti-Semitism, anti-democracy, and racism had to be almost everywhere (in different degrees).

It was also good to make gentiles of those countries feel guilty (once the war finished), and to feed the paranoia of the average jew.

As all those political movements of the 20's and 30's couldn't appear all of a sudden, nationalist, racist or/and anti-Semite movements and writers had to appear long before that. This is why there were people like Joseph Arthur de Gobineau (19th century), Edouard Drumont (fall of 19th century), the "Action Française" (beginning of the 20th century), etc… Those French intellectual and political movements influenced political life of Italy, Spain, Portugal, and Greece of the 20's and 30's.

Of course, this list is limited to only three or four county, because in many European countries, nationalists have won (and we are talking about political movements which didn't succeed). And in Russia, there was the communist dictatorship (so, it was impossible for other political movements to exist). Thus, the list is limited only to democratic countries. France and England are the main countries concerned by this phenomenon, but the USA also.

In this category we have:

President of Ford Motor Company (US): Henry Ford

French political movements: "Action Française", "croix de feu", "Parti populaire Français"

French writers: Louis-Ferdinand Céline, Joseph Arthur de Gobineau

French political activist: Edouard Drumont

UK political movements: Britons, Imperial Fascist League (IFL), British Union of Fascists (BUF)


Of course, about individuals, the acts of retaliation against them (pressure from the jews, prison, etc…) were not for real.

So, all nationalist movements or famous nationalist individuals of this era were in fact phony.

The Battle of Britain and the uncertain strategy of Hitler: other intentional "mistakes"

June 1940. France and Britain have been defeated by Germany. The British army has lost a huge part of its heavy armament and equipment while embarking at Dunkirk. Hitler begins to think about invading England. But, instead of doing this, he attacks Britain only with the Luftwaffe (which is already quite bizarre).

In July, Hitler begins by attacking the boats. Then, seeing the small results of this strategy, he changes his mind and decides to destroy the royal air force (RAF) and military strategic points.

Between the beginning of August and the 7th of September, Things go quite well. The RAF is on the verge of being destroyed. But, suddenly, Hitler changes once again his strategy and begins to bomb the towns.

The explanation of this is that, on August 24, a German bomber sent erroneously its bombs on London while he thought he was bombing the Thameshaven refinery. The day after, the RAF sent bombers on Berlin in retaliation. Furious about this, the 7th of September, Hitler stopped attacking the RAF and military areas and began to bomb only towns. This lasted until October. Then, Hitler decided to not invade England. Thus, the military effort on England was strongly decreased. There were still some bombings (until spring 1941), but much less than during September.


Those strategies and changes of strategy seem already strange even when you believe in the official theory. Hitler knew that attacking boats would not lead to anything, since the boats would go in safe areas of course. So, why try to attack boats? Then, he began to do the right thing, that is, attack the RAF and strategic points. It was good. But the new change of strategy (bombing towns) was once again very strange. He was on the point of destroying the RAF in just one month, and suddenly, because of just one little bombing on Berlin, he was suddenly dominated by his nerves, and decided to abandon completely his winning strategy? Very strange indeed.

Hitler doing masonic handshakes and signs

Here are some photos and paintings with Hitler doing masonic handshakes and signs.

A clear masonic sign with the left hand (the two middle fingers are stuck together while the others are separated from them, an unnatural position) 

This first image is in fact a painting from Heinrich Knirr (made in 1937). 

Of course, skeptics could think that maybe Knirr invented this masonic sign and Hitler never did it. But historians say Knirr made his paintings from Heinrich Hoffmann's photos. And he tried to just copy the photo the most faithfully possible. There is just one painting from life of Adolf Hitler: it's a portrait made by Knirr in 1935, at Berchtesgaden. All the other ones were made from photos. 

You could also make the hypothesis that maybe Knirr was a freemason himself and that he maliciously painted this masonic hand sign. But, if Hitler and the Nazi regime had been what they seemed to be, Knirr would never have dared to do that. As the portrait would be seen by everybody, he would have feared that some antimasonic Nazi would have been able to recognize the masonic sign. Then he would have been sent in prison or in a concentration camp, or even executed. He would have never taken such a risk just for the little pleasure of putting a masonic sign on a painting of Hitler. 

So, it's indeed Hitler who did this masonic sign.

The strange Greco-Italian war decided by Mussolini

I have already talked about Greece in the previous article. We are going to see more details about this affair.

So, the 28th of October 1940, Mussolini suddenly declared war on Greece. 560.000 Italians faced 300.000 Greeks. Then, not only Greeks weren't defeated, but they even counter-attacked. In December, they had been able to advance of nearly 50 km in the Albanian territory. The 9th of March, Mussolini launched a second offensive, which didn't work either. After one week and 12.000 soldiers killed, he decided to stop the offensive and to let Hitler resolve the problem. For days after, his army left Albania. Thus, Hitler was forced to intervene in order to avoid a serious defeat for his ally. Germany invaded Greece the 6th of April, and Greece lost the 28th of April.

There are several logical problems with this affair.

1. It's not the strangest of all the discrepancies, but why did Mussolini attack Greece? The argument that Mussolini was jealous of Hitler is quite ridiculous. Maybe the one that he wanted to remake a Roman empire is a little bit believable. But the Greek government was a dictatorship. Metaxas was anticommunist. His ideas were close of those of Mussolini. He should have been an ally instead of an enemy. It's a little bit like if Mussolini had attacked Spain.
2. Why did Mussolini attack at this moment (October 28 1940)? The timing of the attack was bizarre. At this very moment, things didn't go very well in North Africa: the 150.000 soldiers of the 10th army weren't able to attack the 36.000 British soldiers. Ok, the attack hadn't already taken place. But the Generals of Mussolini were warning him that the armies of North Africa weren't ready for an attack. And as Mussolini didn't know what would happen in North Africa, he should have been cautious and wait before attacking Greece. He should have waited until the battle of North Africa was finished, and attack Greece after that. Autumn and winter were also not especially the best seasons to make an attack. It is said that it's because the season was inappropriate for an attack that Hitler didn't attack Greece right away.
3. How could they lose, and so quickly? They were vastly superior concerning the number of soldiers (there were 560.000 Italians against 300.000 Greeks, so, almost 2 against 1). And, as Italy was much bigger and richer than Greece (44 million people against 7), they were much better equipped than Greeks. According to Wikipedia, they had 163 tanks when Greece had only 20, 463 aircrafts (Greece 77). Thus, they shouldn't have lost so quickly.
4. What did England do there? When they began to send troops (the sending was finally decided the 22nd of February, and the first troops were sent the 6th of March 1941), they knew Germany was on the verge of participating to the invasion (they invaded Greece the 6th of April 1941). So, they were absolutely sure to lose. And, at the same time, they were almost sure to win in North Africa. So, why mobilize 58.000 soldiers in Greece where they were sure of losing instead of sending them in North Africa, where they were sure to win? British also took troops of North Africa to send them in Greece. This is why the attack against Italians in North Africa was stopped the 7th of February 1941. Germany began sending troops in North Africa the 11th of February (via Tripoli). But there were enough of them only at the beginning of March. So, during one month, England could have obliterated the Italian forces and pushed until Tripoli (in 15 days, between the 22nd of January and the 7th of February, they had progressed 400 km). It is also said that sending British troops in Greece was not accepted by Greek government at the beginning because there was a high risk that it would lead Hitler to attack Greece. And indeed, the intervention of England in Greece was one of the reasons he did it.

When you understand that Hitler was a Jewish shill and that World War II was staged, all those discrepancies can be explained.

Why didn't Hitler attack British forces in North Africa in 1940?

Another discrepancy is about the Battle of North Africa. In August 1940, the Battle of France was over. England had lost a lot of his heavy armament. They were under the attack of the Luftwaffe. They were under the threat of being invaded. In this situation, they couldn't send troops to North Africa.

At this time, there were only 36.000 British soldiers in North Africa, with 250 airplanes.

So, Hitler had a free hand to be able to defeat them and to get the oil of the Middle East. And oil of the Middle East was very important for Hitler. Officially, this is why he attacked the Russians in the south in 1941, instead of attacking Moscow, and thus, lost the war against Russia.

Hitler knew that British wouldn't be able to send reinforcements. And during the following 10 months, his armies wouldn't do anything. So, in August 1940, the moment was perfect to send troops in North Africa and beat the British armies. He didn't have to send tons of soldiers; just 100.000 would have been enough.

But no, Hitler didn't do anything until the beginning of 1941 (of course, it was already almost too late). And he sent only few forces. Thus it wasn't enough to make the decision (he did something only because Italians had big problems against English forces).

Once again, if you think that Hitler was for real, you don't understand. Ok, there are the arguments that Hitler relied on Italian forces at the beginning, or that he was concentrated on invading England, and then on invading Russia.

But Italian Forces had proved to be inefficient. The battle against English forces of North Africa was constantly delayed.  And even for Italian generals themselves, it was obvious that this offensive was doomed to failure. They didn't have enough heavy tanks, enough anti-tank material, enough trucks to transport troops, etc... And Italians had proved to be quite inefficient during the Battle of France. So, Hitler had to know this, obviously. Thus, as the objective was very important, he should have wanted to help the Italians; for example by giving them material and some troops (let's say, at least 50.000 soldiers), in order to have a quick result.

Ok, he was concentrated on England, and after that, on Russia. But, not even one year before, he was not so concentrated on the Battle of France that he forgot to invade Denmark or Norway. Also, it didn't have to distract him very much. He just had to ask one of his generals to plan the attack. And it is said by historians that in fact, he didn't take the invasion of England too seriously. So, in August, Germans should have been able to plan and organize an attack in North Africa.

All those excuses sound clearly phony. But when you know that Hitler was a jew working for more powerful Jewish leaders, you can understand what happened. Hitler had no intention at all to vanquish British forces in North Africa. For Jewish leaders, it would have been very problematic.

The strange alliance between Germany and Japan

The way of considering things presented in the previous article (about why the war between the USA and Germany was declared only in 1941) explains also the strange alliance between Germany and Japan.

As we have seen it before, to justify all those years of inaction from the USA, Jewish leaders had to give a quite good explanation. The one they found was that America was dominated by isolationists. In December 1941, it was then quite difficult to say that suddenly, they weren't isolationists anymore. Thus, because they were supposed to still be isolationists, the declaration of war of December 1941 couldn't come from them. It had to come from Germany.

This way, the USA could enter the war without creating a discrepancy. But, of course, Germany had everything to lose in a war with the USA, since it was already fighting Russia and England. There would have been no reason at all for Germany to suddenly declare war on the USA at the fall of 1941.

This is why the Japanese alliance was required. With it, Germany had a reason to declare war on the USA. Even if the reason seemed very phony, there was at least a reason. Once this reason created, Jewish Medias just had to sell the idea that Hitler was a man of honor and thus, felt obligated to declare war on the USA.

With Japan, Jewish leaders had a country totally independent from Europe; a country which then could declare war on the USA at any desired time, something very useful and convenient since the moment the war between Germany and the USA had to be declared was quite strange (if Japan hadn't been involved).

This is why there was this very strange alliance between Japan and Germany (September 27 1940). It had nothing to do with the official story; that is, Hitler had Japan in great esteem and thought Japanese were kind of Germanic Asians. It also had nothing to do with the hope that Japan would participate to the war against Russia.

Of course, it means that the Japanese government was already controlled by jews. Otherwise, Jewish leaders wouldn't have relied on it for this agenda which needed to be very precise.

PS: Indeed, this alliance was very strange. What did Hitler, who thought that German and Nordic races were the only ones which worthed something, do with Asians?

Officially, from the point of view of Germans, this alliance was concluded because of USSR. Hitler hoped that Japan would help him against Russia (that is, would declare war to Russia). The problem is: in September 1940, it was clear that Japan wouldn't help Germany against Russia. First, it was very dubious that they could do it, since they were already very busy with China, Southern Asia, India, etc… And they most probably didn't want it. Why would Japan attack Russia? They didn't have any profits to make in this affair. The only lands they could gain were of very low interest. And for those poor lands, they would have to make a war against a very powerful adversary. China, Southern Asia presented much more interests for them. It was obvious. So, Hitler didn't have any help against Russia to hope for. And he couldn't ignore it.

In fact, the alliance with Japan was extremely dangerous, since, in September 1940, it seemed more and more likely that they would finally make war against the USA; something which was totally against the interests of Germany.

So, why an alliance? Why not just a cordial relationship?

Ok, maybe why not an alliance? But, then, not a serious one. Just an alliance on paper. Not an alliance leading to declare war on the USA. But it was not a superficial alliance. It was a very serious one (at least in the mind of Hitler), since it leaded Germany to declare war on the USA.

So, this alliance was very strange. But when you understand that the war was staged, you understand why this alliance took place. It was concluded only to allow the USA to enter the war against Germany without having to do the first step.

Why was the war between the USA and Germany declared only in 1941?

When you study the Battle of France, Dunkirk, the Battle of North Africa, etc, with a revisionist eye (that is, knowing that Hitler was a Zionist jew), you quickly ask yourself why the USA didn't declared war on Germany in 1939 or 1940. And you also ask yourself why it was Germany which declared war against America and not the contrary. And as quickly, you understand why.

Indeed, the fact that America didn't declared war on Germany sooner is extremely fishy. As England, France and all European countries, the USA had been dominated by the jews since an long time. In 1939, the president was Franklin Delano Roosevelt, a jew. Roosevelt is a derivative of the Jewish name Rosenfeld, and Delano is also a Jewish name.

The infamous banknote of one dollar, the one with the pyramid and the all seeing eye, has been created in 1933, after the election of Roosevelt. The Jewish leaders sent then an important signal toward Gentiles. It meant "we are now powerful enough to show you clearly that we are the masters and you are the cattle". So, things were clear regarding the nature of the government of the USA.

So, America should have been the one which would have declared war on Germany, not the contrary. And America would have declared it as soon as England and France had declared war on Germany, that is, in 1939. And long before that, America should have pushed other Jewish dominated states of Europe (France, England, etc…) to make war on Germany.

And if they hadn't done it in 1939, they would have done it in 1940, after Dunkirk; because they would have feared an invasion of England. So, by declaring war on Germany, they would have probably prevented an invasion of it. Hitler would have been too afraid of the immense power of America to try to invade England.

They should have declared it also not long after June 1941, because Germany was then fighting Russians. If Germany had won against Russia, it would have been a catastrophe for the USA and of course, for the Jewish power.

But, no, they never declared war on Germany. It's Germany which declared war on the USA in December 1941, after the declaration of war from Japan to America.

So, the Jewish power was severely challenged by a supposed Anti-Semite, and they did nothing? Absolutely incredible. Super fishy.

Hitler and Dunkirk: it was not a mistake

The case of Dunkirk is one of those which show the most clearly that Hitler was a jew working for Jewish leaders.

Even when I still believed Hitler was for real, I couldn't understand his reaction about Dunkirk. It was a big logical hole in the wwII story. And the official explanation about Hitler wanting to be friend with England didn't hold one second.

For those who don't know, France and England declared war to Germany the 3rd of September 1939, after the invasion of Poland by Hitler's armies. But the real war between France/England and Germany began only May 10 1940, when Hitler invaded France and Belgium.

At the end of May, the situation was the following:

In May 21, 230.000 British soldiers and around 180.000 French soldiers were separated from the rest of the Allied army (in the red zone of the map).  The 26, they began to retreat toward Dunkirk. The 28, the pocket of resistance was now only 37 km long (Dunkirk to Nieuport) and 9km large at best (Beaches to the space before Bergues). There were 800.000 German soldiers against the 410.000 Allied soldiers.

There were two moments in which the decisions of Hitler allowed Allied forces to flee: between the 24 and the 26, and between the 28 and the 4.

The absurdity of wanting to develop the vital space to the east

Hitler said in "Mein Kampf" that the vital space of German people had to be taken on eastern lands, that is, Slavic countries.

For example, in the chapter XIV of Mein Kampf (1926), in Eastern Orientation or Eastern Policy: "If we speak of soil [to be conquered for German settlement] in Europe today, we can primarily have in mind only Russia and her vassal border states."

It was clearly a declaration of war against all Slavic people, since this vital space couldn't only be taken by deportation or by extermination.

The problem is that it is ridiculous. Slavs are among the whitest people. If he had been logical, he would have chosen to take the countries of less white nations, like Italy, or east and south Balkan countries.

Ok, maybe when you go far to the East, some Russians are more mixed with Asians. But the Slavic countries which are close to Germany (so those which would have been invaded by Germany to get the greater lebensraum) are those of the west. They are the countries where there are the whitest Slavs. So, it would have been the whitest Slavs he would have thrown out of their countries in order to have a bigger vital space for Germany. Thus, instead of throwing out Italian, or people of the east or south of Balkans, Hitler, the so-called champion of the white race, would have thrown out much whiter people. It doesn't make any sense.

It's true that he wasn't exactly the champion of the white race, but the champion of the Germanic and Nordic race. But still. After those races, he was the champion of the white race. So, to favor people who were less white instead of pure whites was still completely incredible.

It's also true that there are less people in the Balkans than in Russia and its immediate satellites. In 1940, there were around 40 million people in the Balkan, while there were 168 million people in USSR in January 1939 (And after the gain of half of Poland, there were 196 million people). So, it would have been much less interesting in terms of vital space.

But Hitler couldn't take more than the western side of USSR. And, according to official historians, it was not in his plans to take more. The problem is the western zone of Russia contains just 50 or 60 % of Russians. So, he wouldn't have got more than 85 or 100 million people there. Thus, he wouldn't have got much more people than taking the whole Poland territory (35 million) and Balkan (40 million).

So, why bother about invading Russia, which was very powerful and so very difficult to beat, and which had only 80 or 100 million people, when he could invade Poland and Balkans easily and get place for almost the same number of people?

If he had added France, he would have got access to 40 million more (thus 120 million). And even 60 million, since France had a low density of population (thus 140 million). With the French colonies, there would have been space for at least 60-80 million more Germans (thus a total of 200-220 million).

And why not conquer Turkey? There were only 20 million people in 1940. But there was clearly enough space to have at least 60 million (even with the agricultural knowledge of 1940).

So, there were a lot of different possible combinations, without invading USSR.

In 1940, Hitler had already done a good part of the job (he had conquered France, Belgium and half of Poland). So, what if he had said "well, fuck USSR. I am gonna invade Hungary, Croatia, Bulgaria, Serbia, Romania, Greece, and North Africa"? There wouldn't have been the war against USSR. Thus, Hitler would have kept the power for a very long time. And he would have defeated England easily.

It is said that Hitler respected French. This is why he didn't make a policy of extension of his vital space in France. Thus it means that he made distinction between whites. So, why not respect also Slavs, who were even more white than French?

So, this policy against Slavic countries doesn't make sense. But it makes completely sense if Hitler was a jew working for greater Jewish leaders who wanted to create Israel.

Why did Hitler need to have this policy toward Slavs?

There were several reasons:

1° USSR was needed by Jewish leaders to trap everyday jews from Eastern and Central Europe in the future Soviet Bloc. Without a war from Hitler against USSR, this wouldn't have been made, since USSR wouldn't have won and thus wouldn't have been able to take over Eastern and Central Europe.

2° Jewish leaders needed the war between Germany and the USSR. Otherwise, Germany wouldn't have been beaten. England was much too weak to be able to defeat Germany. There was only the USSR which was a credible adversary, an adversary able to win again Germany. So, as Jewish leaders didn't want the reign of Hitler over Europe to last more than a few years, they had to make loose German's armies. And the only country which could do that was the USSR.

3° Jewish leaders also needed Hitler to gather Russian jews. Of course, anyhow, they would have been trapped in USSR after the war. So, for Russian jews, the war was not absolutely necessary. But with the war, they could be expelled from their houses by Nazis, deported, humiliated, and so on... So, they would have been more eager to go to Israel after that.


So, for all these reasons, Hitler the jew had to develop this absurd policy in order to justify the invasion of USSR.

PS:

Some say also that Hitler feared the high birth rate of Russia. He feared that Slavs would finally invade the vital space of Germany. But Hitler also said that France would be overwhelmed in 100 or 200 years by African from its colonies. So, he was also conscious that Africa would become a problem for Europe in the near future. But, instead of treating the most important problem (the threat from Africa), he wanted to treat the problem of the very white Russians.

He said that he feared the high birth rate of Russia. But Germany had also a high birth rate. So, why was he afraid of being overwhelmed by Russians and not by Africans or by Arabs, or even Turks, who also had a high birth rate.

Why did Jewhis leaders reveal that Hitler was a jew?

As soon as the 30's, there have been stories of Hitler having Jewish ancestries published in newspapers.

A paper about Hitler being part jewish publish in the Chicago Tribune in September, 20, 1933

And these newspapers were of course owned by Jewish leaders. So, Jewish leaders revealed that Hitler was a jew. Why did they do this quite incredible thing?

At first sight, it seems stupid. If he was really a jew, they didn't have any reason for telling it. If he wasn't a jew, there was no reason either. Why invent such a story?

My opinion is that those informations were not intended for gentiles, but for everyday jews. It was an internal communication plan.

The problem for Jewish leaders was the following: as Hitler was a jew (and 100 % Jewish, so, with a Jewish father and a Jewish mother), it was certainly well known among the jewish community. Jewish leaders couldn't hide this. There were certainly rumors about this among the Jewish community. So, quickly, ordinary jews could have been able to connect the dots, and then to understand that their leaders were betraying them. It would have destroyed the great unity between everyday jews and their leaders. This would have been apocalyptic for these.

Thus, Jewish leader absolutely needed to deceive ordinary jews about Hitler's Jewishness.

As jews knew that Hitler was Jewish to some extent, Jewish leaders couldn't say that he wasn't Jewish at all. Everyday jews would have known it was a lie. So, Jewish leaders had to recognize that Hitler was indeed a jew, thus confirming what jews already knew (that is, the part of the story jewish leaders couldn't hide). But the deceiving part was to add that he was just quarter jewish (whereas he was most probably 100 % jewish).

They sometimes add he was a self-hating jew, thus explaining his hatred against the jews and all the rest of his behavior. But for everydays jews, the self-hater aspect was not the most important one. It was the fact that he was a jew to some extent, thus confirming the rumors from the Jewish community. However, even without adding the self-hater aspect, he couldn't be too jewish, otherwise his anti-Semitism would still have been strange, since he would have known he was a jew from the beginning. Thus, it would have been difficult for him to dislike jews (without being a self-hater). Being quarter jewish made his anti-Semitism possible with or without the self-hater aspect. It could be because he was a self-hater because he had discovered his part Jewishness when he was an adolescent or a young man, or it could be because he didn't know he was a jew and so, became an anti-Semite by the hazards of his existences, his thoughts, his personality, etc…

So, Jewish leaders couldn't say that he was 100 % jewish, nor that he was 50 % jewish, because the self-hater aspect wouldn't have been credible. He would have known from the beginning that his mother or his father was Jewish. So, he wouldn't have got any special reasons to be a self-hating jew. And of course, the idea that he became an anti-Semite by the hazards of existence, without knowing he had Jewish ancestries, would have been even impossible. And in the mind of jews, it would have meant that most probably he was "one of them". So, his anti-Semite policy would have been more difficult to explain. Jews would have been much more prone to think their leaders were betraying them.

They couldn't say either that he was just 1/8th Jewish, because jews would have probably known that he was more jew than that. So, it wouldn't have been credible enough concerning what jews already knew. Some would have suspected that their leaders were still lying to them. And again, the self-hater aspect would have been less credible. 1/8th Jewish, it begins to be too distant to justify self-hate. It would have meant that just one of his great grand-parents was a jew. It's too distant to give a feeling of threat. It would also have been too distant in the past to be fully credible. The events regarding the birth of Hitler's great-grandfather would have taken place in 1800 or 1790. And as Jewish leaders wanted to give a shady part to the story in order to make it quite unverifiable (the doubt about the real identity of Hitler's grandfather), it would have been too shady. The doubt would have then been on Hitler's great-grandfather, a guy who would have lived between, let say 1760 and 1820. It would have been too far in the past. Most people already have big doubts about the story of Hitler's grandfather. If the doubt had been on Hitler's great-grandfather, it would have been too much. Nobody would have bought this story, not even jews. However, there would have been no problems with the part of the story saying he became an anti-Semite because he didn't know his ancestries at all.

So, he absolutely had to be just quarter Jewish, no more, no less. Then, the Jewishness of Hitler was strong enough to confirm the rumors that were spreading in the Jewish community. Because of the shady part about Hitler's father birth, Jewish leaders could still say that Hitler didn't know that he was a jew, and so, that he was able to become an anti-Semite without any guilt. And if they wanted to add a self-hater aspect to the story, it was credible, because his Jewishness was far enough to be ignored by him during all his youth, and close enough to affect him when he would discover it.

The story of the grand-mother of Hitler having a child in shady circumstances was also invented to give the feeling that Hitler's origins weren't clear. So, the fact that he didn't know this when he was young becomes logical. It gives credibility to the idea of a psychological choc when he discovered the thing, and after that, the self-hater side. If he had got a stable family, it would have been more difficult to hide the fact that he had a Jewish grandfather.

So, the story of Hitler being the grandson of a Rothschild or of the Jewish merchant Frankenberger is a lie. A lie created by Jewish leaders. But a lie created in order to hide the fact that Hitler was indeed 100 % Jewish and working for Jewish leaders.

Of course, there are several versions of this story, in order to introduce even more confusion. And of course, now that those stories are gaining momentum with Internet, they are debunked (this was ordered by Jewish leaders). Thus, Jewish leaders are able, depending on the public who will read the story, to sustain or to debunk this theory. Most of the time, as the public is mostly constituted of gentiles; they will finally debunk the story, in order to make people still believe to the official story (Hitler being a gentile nazi). It's also aimed at jews who are not well informed (they are many). But the debunking is never complete. Thus, there is always a possibility for the most conspirationnistes to still believe the version of Hitler being quarter Jewish.

For the moment, it's impossible to know from which Jewish family Hitler really came. But it's not very important. The important point is that he was a 100 % Jewish. And we know that just by understanding his role and the one of Jewish leaders in the entire World War II affair.

So Hitler was not 1/8th, not quarter, not half, but 100 % Jewish. Probably, he was a member of a rich Jewish family and had been educated in the best schools to become a leader.


PS: The good thing for Jewish leaders is that the shady details of this story push gentiles to think that it's phony and that Hitler was 100 % a gentile.

Another good thing for Jewish leaders is that it allows them to introduce confusion and to deceive gentile nationalists about Hitler nowadays. Gentiles come to think that all those revelations are false, since they come from jews (at the beginning, and even now). And indeed, they come 99 % of the time from jews or crypto jews. Of course, fake nationalist leaders don't stop using this argument.

How Jewish leaders forced jews to go to Israel

As we have seen it at the beginning of this blog, Hitler was put in power by Jewish leaders in order to force jews to go to Israel. Jewish leaders could steal Palestine, but they couldn't force directly everyday jews to go to Israel. But, Hitler was not the only element put in place to force everyday jews to go to Israel. It was vaster than just Hitler.

With Hitler, Jewish leaders couldn't have directly a massive immigration to Israel. But they were able to:

1) Push 200,000 jews to emigrate to Israel during the 30's and 40's

2) Create Israel with the deportation of jews (real) and the story of the holocaust (not real)

3) Allows jewish leaders to trap everyday jews of the east of Europe in the not friendly at all post war USSR and then give them the choice of staying in USSR of going to Israel


1° with the hostility of Hitler toward jews, Jewish leaders were able to push something like 200,000 jews to emigrate to Israel (180,000 between 1929 and 1939 and 20,000 between 1939 and 1945).

It wasn't big. But it was a beginning.

2° we already know that the story of the holocaust (which, of course, never happened) was invented in order to give Jewish leaders even more power, by preventing any criticism against jews, and thus against themselves. But I now think that the main reason for the creation of this lie was the creation of Israel. Of course, Jewish leaders could steal the Palestine without any problem. But they still needed a reason to say that now, Palestine was officially Israel. With the holocaust, Jewish leaders were able to do that. It allowed them to create a shock in the opinion of the world. Thus, they were able to justify the fact that England gave Palestine to jews, which then became Israel. Nobody could decently refuse this gift to people who had suffered so much.

3° the third aspect of Hitler's role was to trap everyday jews of Eastern Europe (and some of Western Europe) in the USSR (of course, there was the USSR + its satellites. But to simplify, I will say USSR or Soviet Bloc). As Hitler was presented as a crazy anti-Semite, the fact that he put millions of everyday jews into camps located in Eastern Europe was considered as normal. They also had to create the post-war USSR. It was possible with Hitler. Hitler declared war to USSR. The war was of course staged. And as USSR won this faked war against Germany, it allowed Jewish leader to justify the takeover of most parts of Eastern and Central Europe by the USSR.

Why was the strait of Gibraltar crucial for Hitler?

If Hitler had controlled the strait of Gibraltar, there would have been the following consequences:

1) Hundreds of thousands soldiers and tons of material free from waiting for a possible invasion on the shores of Italy or the south of France.

2) German and Italian armies could have beaten easily the English forces in North Africa. English government could still have supplied its armies by the Suez Canal, theoretically. But it would have been much too far to let them be able to sustain a war. So, quickly, English forces would have been defeated and Germans would have taken the control of the Suez Canal also.

3) Then, the Mediterranean Sea would have been totally free of Allies forces. It would have become a German sea.

4) German forces would then have had access to the oil of Iraq, Iran and Saudi Arabia. Then they wouldn't have got to worry about the oil of Caucasus. Thus, Hitler the jew couldn't have justified his huge strategic mistake of concentrating his forces in Caucasus and not against Moscow.

5) The oil of the Middle East wouldn't have been available for the Allies anymore. The USA supplied GB with its oil. But oil from the Middle East was probably used to supply British armies on the Asian front.

6) The supply lines of the English armies regarding their Asian empire would have been much longer. Thus it would have been much difficult for them to win battles against Japon's forces.

7) There wouldn't have been the invasion of Sicily, Italy and South of France. And Hitler wouldn't have had to send tons of material and soldiers in order to defend these areas. And Hitler had to know that there was an important danger on this side, since England controlled the Mediterranean Sea.

8) Thus, the war would have lasted longer. It would have been more difficult and longer for the Allies to win. Or the plan of Jewish leaders would have been less coherent.

So, because of the troops and material economized, the access to Middle East oil (and the loss of this oil for the Allies), the strategic implication about the war against Russia, the possible loss of his Asian empire for England, controlling the strait of Gibraltar was absolutely crucial for Hitler.

But, as Hitler was in fact a Zionist jew, he had to avoid obtaining the control of it.

The armistice of 1940 : the strange clemency of the jew Hitler toward France

There is another discrepancy which, among other things, has to do with the possible takeover of the strait of Gibraltar from Hitler. It's about the armistice between Germany and France after the defeat of French armies in 1940.

The treaty is quite bizarre. Hitler let a free zone for French people in the south of France (representing nearly half of the French territory) and he let them their colonies. The French armies were completely defeated. So, he could have invaded the entire territory of France and said "now, all your possessions belong to me". French government couldn't have said anything to that. But no, he decides to let a free zone. And he decides also to let them their colony. A very strange clemency.

But, when you know Hitler was a zionist jew and you observe the north African map, you understand why Hitler the jew did that.

France possessed colonies at this time in North Africa. They possessed Tunisia, Algeria, AND Morocco. And Morocco is at the south side of the strait of Gibraltar.

So, if Hitler had decided not to be clement, and to take every French possessions and territories (by an imposed treaty), he would have also taken Morocco. And then, he would have controlled the strait of Gibraltar. Spain controlled a thin band of the north of the Morocco territory, but the French territory was largely near enough of the strait of Gibraltar to let Hitler be able to control it without invading the Spanish protectorate. But Hitler could have also invaded the Spanish protectorate. Spain couldn't have stopped the German armies.

And what would have happened if Hitler had controlled the strait? Germany would have controlled the entire Mediterranean Sea, and all the north of Africa. Then, they wouldn't have had to keep large forces in the south of Europe and in North Africa. They could have invade Iraq an take his oil. England would have been very far from his Indian colonies.

And at this time (September 1940), England was unable to prevent this from happening. So, there was nobody to stop Hitler from invading French (and eventually Spanish) Morocco.

Thus, as Hitler was a jew, he had to show such a strange clemency toward France, and to let them keep the south of France and all their colonies. Without this clemency, Germany would have been stronger and England weaker. And it would have been longer to finish the faked wwII. Or the events would have been less coherent and thus less believable.

It also explains why the German armies didn't rush toward Morocco (and didn't install a simple defensive line against English armies. English armies which would have been defenseless once the strait of Gibraltar controlled, because of a lack of supplies) instead of trying to obliterate English armies when they decided to fight in North Africa (February 1941).

So by not invading Morocco in 1940 or in February 1941, Hitler let England the time to rebuild its forces and to be able (with the USA), to invade Morocco (in November 1942). And all this was planned from the beginning.

And this discrepancy is even more important than the one about Hitler not forcing Spain to give him the control of the strait of Gibraltar, or the one about not invading Spain. It shows even more clearly that Hitler was in fact a traitor who acted intentionally to avoid taking control of the strait. The case of Spain was already extremely shady. But the fact that he also avoided taking control of French North Africa during two years and a half leaves no doubt about his real nature.

Why the jews Franco and Salazar were put in power

If the jews Franco and Salazar were put in power by Jewish leaders, it was to give a reason for Hitler to not attack these countries during WWII (especially Spain). If those two countries had been republics, they would have presented a threat for Hitler, just because of the possibility of a secret alliance with England and the USA in order to allow them to invade the European continent. So, just to avoid this possible threat, Hitler could have decided to invade those countries.
 

And even without considering them as enemies, Hitler wouldn't have got any scruple or hesitation to invade them in order to control the strait of Gibraltar, which was a crucial strategic point in the war against England.

But if those countries were semi-allies, because they were more or less in the same ideological camp, Jewish leaders could justify the fact that Hitler didn't invade them. The idea mainstream Medias sell to us is that Hitler was a sentimentalist and a man of honor, thus he couldn't attack his former ally. Without those moral problems, he would have surely tried to take control of the strait of Gibraltar by a way or another. So, it prevents people from thinking that the behavior of Hitler toward Spain was very strange.
 

But, even with this explanation, this is still extremely shady. Franco was in debt with the Axis. Without the help of Hitler and Mussolini, he would never have won the civil war. Hitler should have been very upset about that. And Hitler wasn't sentimental at all toward his former allies during the night of the long knives (just 6 or 7 years before). So, he should have shown no mercy toward Franco. He would have said "you give me the strait of Gibraltar, or I invade Spain in just one month and I kill you when it's finished". And between September 1940 and July 1941, Hitler had all his forces unemployed. So, his entire army was available to invade Spain. Even with only a quarter of German forces, the invasion would have taken only three weeks.

Almost no books about jews or Freemasons plots under the Hitler's reign

Another discrepancy about Hitler and the nazis is that you almost don't have any book about the jews and their plots, or about Freemasons.

Nazis were in power during 12 years (between 1933 and 1945), and there is almost not even one book about the subject.

Whereas if Hitler and the nazis had been for real, we should have dozens of very well documented books, edited in hundred of thousand of copies, all traduced in many languages.

Imagine all the secrets about jews which would have been accessible with all the power of the Nazi state and the knowledge of the secret police. And it would have been true not only for Germany and Italy, but after 1940, it would also have been true for France, Belgium, Poland, Czechoslovakia, etc.., etc... The German Secret Services could also have used their power to learn secrets about jews and Freemasons of Great Britain, USSR and the USA. So, people should have gained access to completely hidden informations.

But if Hitler and the top ranked nazis were in fact jews, it becomes completely normal.

Events pushing Germans to vote for Hitler were staged by Jewish leaders

Of course, many events from the 20's and 30's were made with the goal of pushing people to vote for Hitler.

1) The German revolution was made of course to provoke a change of government (empire to republic). But the secondary goal was to create a hatred from goys toward jews with the theory of the stab in the back defended later by the nazi's. And of course, it allowed Nazis to present communism and jews as enemies to German people.

2) The treaty of Versailles and the reparations were made to make German people displeased and to make them feel discontent toward English and French governments.

3) The hyperinflation of 1923 was voluntarily created in order to ruin a part of the upper middle class, and so, to make them very angry. The other goal was probably to  suppress the debt of the German government. Being liberated from the debt, it was then easier for them to make a rearmament (also with the help of jewish money).

We can find in Wikipedia informations about the fact that hyperinflation was very favorable to Hitler.

"Although the inflation ended with the introduction of the Rentenmark and the Weimar Republic continued for a decade afterwards, hyperinflation is widely believed to have contributed to the Nazi takeover of Germany and Adolf Hitler's rise to power. Adolf Hitler himself in his book, Mein Kampf, makes many references to the German debt and the negative consequences that brought about the inevitability of "National Socialism". The inflation also raised doubts about the competence of liberal institutions, especially amongst a middle class who had held cash savings and bonds. It also produced resentment of bankers and speculators, whom the government and press blamed for the inflation.[16] Many of them were Jews, and some Germans called the hyperinflated Weimar banknotes Jew Confetti".

4) The Ruhr invasion in 1923 and 1924 (officially made to oblige German government to pay the reparations), was another action made to produce discontent in the German population.

5) Same thing, the stock market crash of 1929 and the great depression which followed were made, among other things, with the goal of provoking the ruin of the German upper middle class, the impoverishment of the middle class and also provoking a massive amount of unemployment, thus creating even more discontent.

6) All the informations about the involvement of jews in the Russian revolution were given to increase the resentment against jews. We can notice that after 1940, when nazism was no more necessary, suddenly, we haven't informations about the jews in USSR anymore. Some people will say it's because jews were expelled from power by Stalin. But when jewish leaders have the power, they never let it go so easily. So, it's obvious that jews were still possessing the power after Stalin. And then, we should have informations about them.

World War I was staged by Jewish leaders also

I have already presented the plan behind ww2. They have put the jew Hitler in power in order to oblige everyday jews to go to Israel. After losing everything and being in the suddenly hostile USSR after the war, the choice of going to Israel seemed a quite good deal for them.

But Jewish leaders were obliged to make a plan in two parts. They couldn't have a Hitler all of a sudden. And for their ww2 plan, they had to control every important countries. And it seems that, in 1914, Russia was not into control yet. Great Britain was, France was, USA were, Germany and Austria most probably were. But it seems that it was not the case of Russia.

Or maybe it was. But they had to justify the future hatred against jews and Russia (which had become communist at this time) from the future nazi government. So, even if it was in control, they had to destroy the Russian government and to replace it by one with a very visible domination from jews.

So they had to create a first European war in order to create the conditions of success for the ww2 plan and finally for the creation of Israel.

So, with ww1, they were able to :

1) Justify the rise of Hitler because of the Versailles treaty, the poverty caused by the war (and by the jews after the collapse stocks markets of October 1929), the supposed stab in the back from jews in 1918, and the communist-jewish menace from USSR.

2) Justify the war against the now communist and dominated by jews USSR in 1940.

3) They were also able to create the condition of existence for Israel in the middle-east. The Turkish empire was too big and too powerful for the future Israel. They had to split it into several pieces in order to have only countries with little or average size and power. With ww1, they were able to justify the collapse of the Turkish empire in 1920.

With this new interpretation of those events, we can also understand why wwI lasted 4 years. In fact, in Europe, the goal of the war was to create revolutions in Russia and Germany. And the plan of jewish leaders was to explain them by the fact that people were fed up with the war. So the war had to last quite a long time in order to explain revolts from people. It had to last at least 3 years to explain in a convincing way the Russian revolution.

But, as the Russian revolution allowed Germany to transfer its armies from the east to the west, thus increasing greatly his forces against French/English armies, the war needed to last longer than 3 years. German armies had to win some more times in 1918 before beginning to lose. And they had to begin to lose. Because otherwise, the German revolution wouldn't have been believable. A revolution when a country is winning, it is quite bizarre. It's less bizarre when it is loosing. So, this added nearly one year of war after the Russian revolution.

In fact, jewish leaders ended the war quite too quickly, because the change in the balance of forces was too quick to be honest. In marsh 1918, German armies got reinforcements from east troops. Between marsh and July 1918, they were still able to make large breakthroughs. But, suddenly, in august, it was finished. The allies were making German armies retreat everywhere.

Anyway, with Germany beginning to retreat a little bit, they were able to launch the German revolution (in 10/30/1918 at Kiel). Once again, this operation was done too fast not to be something staged. In only 12 days, the revolution had succeed and Guillaume II was fleeing toward Netherlands (11/10/1918). In fact, it was even better than that. Because, until the 11/6/1918, the revolution was limited to Kiel. So, in only 4 days, the revolution had succeeded and Guillaume II was fleeing. A little to incredible.
 

They were obliged to have a revolution in Germany in order to explain the rise of Hitler. Without it, the empire would have been still in place, and Hitler couldn't have come to power (since there would have been no election for supreme power). Or it would have been much difficult to explain. Jewish leaders were obliged to have a republic to be able to have Hitler as the chancellor 15 years later.

The revolution also allowed them to end the war sooner. Without it, they would have been obliged to have a military victory. And it would have been much longer (may be 1 or 2 more years). Or it would have been less logical.

Of course, as Jewish leaders didn't need the war anymore after the German revolution, they could end it right away. But maybe another reason forced them to end the war very quickly after the German revolution. As Jewish leaders like symbols and numerology, maybe they wanted to finish the war the 11/11/1918 (number eleven is important for them, as we have known it since 9/11 events). So, in order to fit with this date, they were pressed to end the war quicker than they would probably have done if they hadn't got this numerical symbol in mind.

The revolution also permitted jewish leaders to advance the stab in the back theory, which made German people hostile toward jews. This was another explanation of the rise of Hitler.

So, in fact, the war lasted a long time not because the defense was too strong at this time (thus preventing any breakthrough into the enemy lines), but because jewish leaders needed it to last enough time to be able to explain de Russian and the German revolutions.

And all those stupid bloody attacks with only a gain of 1 or 2 kms and 100.000 deads each time were also made with the goal of justifying the discontent from troops and also civilians. And thus justifying Russian and German revolutions.

It also allows Jewish leaders to explain the hatred for war from French and English people and government during the 20's and the 30's, thus explaining their passivity against Germany's rearmament, about the expansion wars from Hitler, and the strategy of "defense only" from the French government (which allows them to explain the fact that the Allied armies lost in 1940).

The shady things about Hitler sustaining the idea he was a zionist jew

There are many things which are much too shady about Hitler and which sustain the idea he was jew working for more powerful jewish leaders and that all those events were faked and planned.

1) First of all, in a country dominated by jews as was Germany during the 20's and the 30's, it would have been impossible for a hostile goy like Hitler to come to power. When they control a country, jewish leaders don't let hostile goyims take back the power. So, the rise of Hitler is unbelievable, especially in such a short period of time.

2) The reaction of Hitler about Dunkirk is also incredible. He can capture the entire English army. But what does he do ? He let them flee. What !!? And the Hitler's pretext is that he had a great respect for England ! Wtf !!? No, only a traitor acts like that. A real nazi would never have done that.

He did that because he was a zionist jew. And as the war was a fake one, he had to let the english army flee. Otherwise, England couldn't have continued the war. And the USA couldn't have made the D-day and won the war with the USSR as it was planned.

3) Hitler knew a two-front war was something he had to avoid at all costs. He told many times that it was that which had lead to the defeat during WWI. But what does he do ? He attacks USSR before having destroyed England, thus creating a... two-front war.

4) Hitler doesn't invade the strait of Gibraltar, which would have made him the master of the Mediterranean sea, thus preventing the battles of north Africa, and also the invasion of Italy and of the south of France. The communication lines between England and its empire (like India), would have been much more extended.

Maybe he would have been obliged to invade Spain also. But without the threat of an invasion in the south of Europe, he would have been able to remove troops from other areas, like Greece. And as Spain was exhausted by the war of 1936 (which had ended in 1939), it would have been very easy to defeat it.


Another one than myself has seen other discrepancies :

5) "The Jew Hitler refuses to even feint an attack on Britain to draw the British navy to the channel, were it could be obliterated by aircraft".

Very relevant. England could prevent a landing with their fleet. But their fleet could have been destroyed by the german aircraft.

6) "The Jew Hitler declares war on the U.S., even though he was no more obliged to declare war on the U.S. than Japan was obliged to declare war on the Soviet Union, which Germany had been fighting since June 1941. Japan never declared war on the Soviet Union."

7) "The Jew Hitler (against the advice of all his generals) single-handedly saves Moscow by ordering army group "Center" to stop its advance on Moscow".

8) "The Jew Hitler tells the Soviets an attack will occur at Kursk. The Jew Hitler delays the attack for more than four months, until the Soviets have built defensive lines eight deep. The Soviets concentrate 1,300,000 soldiers with 3,600 tanks, 20,000 artillery pieces, including 6,000 76mm anti-tank guns, and 2,400 aircraft in and around Kursk. An attack anywhere other than Kursk would be fatal for the Soviets, but the Soviets seem to know that the attack will come only at Kursk."

They knew it because the war was a fake one, planned by the jewish leaders.

9) "The Jew Hitler orders German troops to attack the most heavily defended lines ever constructed, at Kursk".

"The Jew Hitler is amazed by the supermen of the elite SS Panzer Korps Liebstandarte, who, in the south, break through all eight defensive lines and take on the Soviet reserve tank battalions".

"Less than two weeks into the offensive, worried that the Liebstandarte might win the battle for the Germans, the Jew Hitler strips this elite group of their tanks and ships them to Northern Italy, where they sit on their hands for some months before returning to the eastern front. The pretext of the Sicily invasion is used".

As there was enough jews in the concentration camps, Hitler's mission was over, and then, he had to loose the war. And the unexpected success of the SS Panzer Korps Liebstandarte was not at all a part of the plan. So, he sent them far away.

And, of course, it was not because he was caring for his troops. In many other occasions, orders were to be killed rather than retreating.

This stupid strategy of being killed rather than retreating was also a part of the jewish plan. With an elastic defense, the war could have last two or three more years. But jewish leaders didn't need the war anymore. So, Hitler had to choose a stupid strategy which would accelerate the end of the war.

10) "The Jew Hitler refuses total mobilisation of the German people, even though the munitions factories cried out for manpower and all his enemies had recruited woman into the work force. The Jew Hitler never bothered to use half the potential German labor force."

11) "And do you think (the Jew) Roosevelt would have forced the Japanese into the very destructive Pacific war, if he hadn't been certain Hitler would declare war on the United States? How was Roosevelt so sure Hitler would declare war on the United States. What if Hitler had just said, "Piss off, Roosevelt. Enjoy your little war against Japan." Then Roosevelt would have ended up just fighting the Japanese without being able to drag the United States into direct participation in the European war. ..... and it goes on and on ..... instance, after instance, of Hitler single-handedly losing the war for the Germans (and winning it for the Jews)."