The absurdity of wanting to develop the vital space to the east

Hitler said in "Mein Kampf" that the vital space of German people had to be taken on eastern lands, that is, Slavic countries.

For example, in the chapter XIV of Mein Kampf (1926), in Eastern Orientation or Eastern Policy: "If we speak of soil [to be conquered for German settlement] in Europe today, we can primarily have in mind only Russia and her vassal border states."

It was clearly a declaration of war against all Slavic people, since this vital space couldn't only be taken by deportation or by extermination.

The problem is that it is ridiculous. Slavs are among the whitest people. If he had been logical, he would have chosen to take the countries of less white nations, like Italy, or east and south Balkan countries.

Ok, maybe when you go far to the East, some Russians are more mixed with Asians. But the Slavic countries which are close to Germany (so those which would have been invaded by Germany to get the greater lebensraum) are those of the west. They are the countries where there are the whitest Slavs. So, it would have been the whitest Slavs he would have thrown out of their countries in order to have a bigger vital space for Germany. Thus, instead of throwing out Italian, or people of the east or south of Balkans, Hitler, the so-called champion of the white race, would have thrown out much whiter people. It doesn't make any sense.

It's true that he wasn't exactly the champion of the white race, but the champion of the Germanic and Nordic race. But still. After those races, he was the champion of the white race. So, to favor people who were less white instead of pure whites was still completely incredible.

It's also true that there are less people in the Balkans than in Russia and its immediate satellites. In 1940, there were around 40 million people in the Balkan, while there were 168 million people in USSR in January 1939 (And after the gain of half of Poland, there were 196 million people). So, it would have been much less interesting in terms of vital space.

But Hitler couldn't take more than the western side of USSR. And, according to official historians, it was not in his plans to take more. The problem is the western zone of Russia contains just 50 or 60 % of Russians. So, he wouldn't have got more than 85 or 100 million people there. Thus, he wouldn't have got much more people than taking the whole Poland territory (35 million) and Balkan (40 million).

So, why bother about invading Russia, which was very powerful and so very difficult to beat, and which had only 80 or 100 million people, when he could invade Poland and Balkans easily and get place for almost the same number of people?

If he had added France, he would have got access to 40 million more (thus 120 million). And even 60 million, since France had a low density of population (thus 140 million). With the French colonies, there would have been space for at least 60-80 million more Germans (thus a total of 200-220 million).

And why not conquer Turkey? There were only 20 million people in 1940. But there was clearly enough space to have at least 60 million (even with the agricultural knowledge of 1940).

So, there were a lot of different possible combinations, without invading USSR.

In 1940, Hitler had already done a good part of the job (he had conquered France, Belgium and half of Poland). So, what if he had said "well, fuck USSR. I am gonna invade Hungary, Croatia, Bulgaria, Serbia, Romania, Greece, and North Africa"? There wouldn't have been the war against USSR. Thus, Hitler would have kept the power for a very long time. And he would have defeated England easily.

It is said that Hitler respected French. This is why he didn't make a policy of extension of his vital space in France. Thus it means that he made distinction between whites. So, why not respect also Slavs, who were even more white than French?

So, this policy against Slavic countries doesn't make sense. But it makes completely sense if Hitler was a jew working for greater Jewish leaders who wanted to create Israel.

Why did Hitler need to have this policy toward Slavs?

There were several reasons:

1° USSR was needed by Jewish leaders to trap everyday jews from Eastern and Central Europe in the future Soviet Bloc. Without a war from Hitler against USSR, this wouldn't have been made, since USSR wouldn't have won and thus wouldn't have been able to take over Eastern and Central Europe.

2° Jewish leaders needed the war between Germany and the USSR. Otherwise, Germany wouldn't have been beaten. England was much too weak to be able to defeat Germany. There was only the USSR which was a credible adversary, an adversary able to win again Germany. So, as Jewish leaders didn't want the reign of Hitler over Europe to last more than a few years, they had to make loose German's armies. And the only country which could do that was the USSR.

3° Jewish leaders also needed Hitler to gather Russian jews. Of course, anyhow, they would have been trapped in USSR after the war. So, for Russian jews, the war was not absolutely necessary. But with the war, they could be expelled from their houses by Nazis, deported, humiliated, and so on... So, they would have been more eager to go to Israel after that.


So, for all these reasons, Hitler the jew had to develop this absurd policy in order to justify the invasion of USSR.

PS:

Some say also that Hitler feared the high birth rate of Russia. He feared that Slavs would finally invade the vital space of Germany. But Hitler also said that France would be overwhelmed in 100 or 200 years by African from its colonies. So, he was also conscious that Africa would become a problem for Europe in the near future. But, instead of treating the most important problem (the threat from Africa), he wanted to treat the problem of the very white Russians.

He said that he feared the high birth rate of Russia. But Germany had also a high birth rate. So, why was he afraid of being overwhelmed by Russians and not by Africans or by Arabs, or even Turks, who also had a high birth rate.

Why did Jewhis leaders reveal that Hitler was a jew?

As soon as the 30's, there have been stories of Hitler having Jewish ancestries published in newspapers.

A paper about Hitler being part jewish publish in the Chicago Tribune in September, 20, 1933

And these newspapers were of course owned by Jewish leaders. So, Jewish leaders revealed that Hitler was a jew. Why did they do this quite incredible thing?

At first sight, it seems stupid. If he was really a jew, they didn't have any reason for telling it. If he wasn't a jew, there was no reason either. Why invent such a story?

My opinion is that those informations were not intended for gentiles, but for everyday jews. It was an internal communication plan.

The problem for Jewish leaders was the following: as Hitler was a jew (and 100 % Jewish, so, with a Jewish father and a Jewish mother), it was certainly well known among the jewish community. Jewish leaders couldn't hide this. There were certainly rumors about this among the Jewish community. So, quickly, ordinary jews could have been able to connect the dots, and then to understand that their leaders were betraying them. It would have destroyed the great unity between everyday jews and their leaders. This would have been apocalyptic for these.

Thus, Jewish leader absolutely needed to deceive ordinary jews about Hitler's Jewishness.

As jews knew that Hitler was Jewish to some extent, Jewish leaders couldn't say that he wasn't Jewish at all. Everyday jews would have known it was a lie. So, Jewish leaders had to recognize that Hitler was indeed a jew, thus confirming what jews already knew (that is, the part of the story jewish leaders couldn't hide). But the deceiving part was to add that he was just quarter jewish (whereas he was most probably 100 % jewish).

They sometimes add he was a self-hating jew, thus explaining his hatred against the jews and all the rest of his behavior. But for everydays jews, the self-hater aspect was not the most important one. It was the fact that he was a jew to some extent, thus confirming the rumors from the Jewish community. However, even without adding the self-hater aspect, he couldn't be too jewish, otherwise his anti-Semitism would still have been strange, since he would have known he was a jew from the beginning. Thus, it would have been difficult for him to dislike jews (without being a self-hater). Being quarter jewish made his anti-Semitism possible with or without the self-hater aspect. It could be because he was a self-hater because he had discovered his part Jewishness when he was an adolescent or a young man, or it could be because he didn't know he was a jew and so, became an anti-Semite by the hazards of his existences, his thoughts, his personality, etc…

So, Jewish leaders couldn't say that he was 100 % jewish, nor that he was 50 % jewish, because the self-hater aspect wouldn't have been credible. He would have known from the beginning that his mother or his father was Jewish. So, he wouldn't have got any special reasons to be a self-hating jew. And of course, the idea that he became an anti-Semite by the hazards of existence, without knowing he had Jewish ancestries, would have been even impossible. And in the mind of jews, it would have meant that most probably he was "one of them". So, his anti-Semite policy would have been more difficult to explain. Jews would have been much more prone to think their leaders were betraying them.

They couldn't say either that he was just 1/8th Jewish, because jews would have probably known that he was more jew than that. So, it wouldn't have been credible enough concerning what jews already knew. Some would have suspected that their leaders were still lying to them. And again, the self-hater aspect would have been less credible. 1/8th Jewish, it begins to be too distant to justify self-hate. It would have meant that just one of his great grand-parents was a jew. It's too distant to give a feeling of threat. It would also have been too distant in the past to be fully credible. The events regarding the birth of Hitler's great-grandfather would have taken place in 1800 or 1790. And as Jewish leaders wanted to give a shady part to the story in order to make it quite unverifiable (the doubt about the real identity of Hitler's grandfather), it would have been too shady. The doubt would have then been on Hitler's great-grandfather, a guy who would have lived between, let say 1760 and 1820. It would have been too far in the past. Most people already have big doubts about the story of Hitler's grandfather. If the doubt had been on Hitler's great-grandfather, it would have been too much. Nobody would have bought this story, not even jews. However, there would have been no problems with the part of the story saying he became an anti-Semite because he didn't know his ancestries at all.

So, he absolutely had to be just quarter Jewish, no more, no less. Then, the Jewishness of Hitler was strong enough to confirm the rumors that were spreading in the Jewish community. Because of the shady part about Hitler's father birth, Jewish leaders could still say that Hitler didn't know that he was a jew, and so, that he was able to become an anti-Semite without any guilt. And if they wanted to add a self-hater aspect to the story, it was credible, because his Jewishness was far enough to be ignored by him during all his youth, and close enough to affect him when he would discover it.

The story of the grand-mother of Hitler having a child in shady circumstances was also invented to give the feeling that Hitler's origins weren't clear. So, the fact that he didn't know this when he was young becomes logical. It gives credibility to the idea of a psychological choc when he discovered the thing, and after that, the self-hater side. If he had got a stable family, it would have been more difficult to hide the fact that he had a Jewish grandfather.

So, the story of Hitler being the grandson of a Rothschild or of the Jewish merchant Frankenberger is a lie. A lie created by Jewish leaders. But a lie created in order to hide the fact that Hitler was indeed 100 % Jewish and working for Jewish leaders.

Of course, there are several versions of this story, in order to introduce even more confusion. And of course, now that those stories are gaining momentum with Internet, they are debunked (this was ordered by Jewish leaders). Thus, Jewish leaders are able, depending on the public who will read the story, to sustain or to debunk this theory. Most of the time, as the public is mostly constituted of gentiles; they will finally debunk the story, in order to make people still believe to the official story (Hitler being a gentile nazi). It's also aimed at jews who are not well informed (they are many). But the debunking is never complete. Thus, there is always a possibility for the most conspirationnistes to still believe the version of Hitler being quarter Jewish.

For the moment, it's impossible to know from which Jewish family Hitler really came. But it's not very important. The important point is that he was a 100 % Jewish. And we know that just by understanding his role and the one of Jewish leaders in the entire World War II affair.

So Hitler was not 1/8th, not quarter, not half, but 100 % Jewish. Probably, he was a member of a rich Jewish family and had been educated in the best schools to become a leader.


PS: The good thing for Jewish leaders is that the shady details of this story push gentiles to think that it's phony and that Hitler was 100 % a gentile.

Another good thing for Jewish leaders is that it allows them to introduce confusion and to deceive gentile nationalists about Hitler nowadays. Gentiles come to think that all those revelations are false, since they come from jews (at the beginning, and even now). And indeed, they come 99 % of the time from jews or crypto jews. Of course, fake nationalist leaders don't stop using this argument.

How Jewish leaders forced jews to go to Israel

As we have seen it at the beginning of this blog, Hitler was put in power by Jewish leaders in order to force jews to go to Israel. Jewish leaders could steal Palestine, but they couldn't force directly everyday jews to go to Israel. But, Hitler was not the only element put in place to force everyday jews to go to Israel. It was vaster than just Hitler.

With Hitler, Jewish leaders couldn't have directly a massive immigration to Israel. But they were able to:

1) Push 200,000 jews to emigrate to Israel during the 30's and 40's

2) Create Israel with the deportation of jews (real) and the story of the holocaust (not real)

3) Allows jewish leaders to trap everyday jews of the east of Europe in the not friendly at all post war USSR and then give them the choice of staying in USSR of going to Israel


1° with the hostility of Hitler toward jews, Jewish leaders were able to push something like 200,000 jews to emigrate to Israel (180,000 between 1929 and 1939 and 20,000 between 1939 and 1945).

It wasn't big. But it was a beginning.

2° we already know that the story of the holocaust (which, of course, never happened) was invented in order to give Jewish leaders even more power, by preventing any criticism against jews, and thus against themselves. But I now think that the main reason for the creation of this lie was the creation of Israel. Of course, Jewish leaders could steal the Palestine without any problem. But they still needed a reason to say that now, Palestine was officially Israel. With the holocaust, Jewish leaders were able to do that. It allowed them to create a shock in the opinion of the world. Thus, they were able to justify the fact that England gave Palestine to jews, which then became Israel. Nobody could decently refuse this gift to people who had suffered so much.

3° the third aspect of Hitler's role was to trap everyday jews of Eastern Europe (and some of Western Europe) in the USSR (of course, there was the USSR + its satellites. But to simplify, I will say USSR or Soviet Bloc). As Hitler was presented as a crazy anti-Semite, the fact that he put millions of everyday jews into camps located in Eastern Europe was considered as normal. They also had to create the post-war USSR. It was possible with Hitler. Hitler declared war to USSR. The war was of course staged. And as USSR won this faked war against Germany, it allowed Jewish leader to justify the takeover of most parts of Eastern and Central Europe by the USSR.

Why was the strait of Gibraltar crucial for Hitler?

If Hitler had controlled the strait of Gibraltar, there would have been the following consequences:

1) Hundreds of thousands soldiers and tons of material free from waiting for a possible invasion on the shores of Italy or the south of France.

2) German and Italian armies could have beaten easily the English forces in North Africa. English government could still have supplied its armies by the Suez Canal, theoretically. But it would have been much too far to let them be able to sustain a war. So, quickly, English forces would have been defeated and Germans would have taken the control of the Suez Canal also.

3) Then, the Mediterranean Sea would have been totally free of Allies forces. It would have become a German sea.

4) German forces would then have had access to the oil of Iraq, Iran and Saudi Arabia. Then they wouldn't have got to worry about the oil of Caucasus. Thus, Hitler the jew couldn't have justified his huge strategic mistake of concentrating his forces in Caucasus and not against Moscow.

5) The oil of the Middle East wouldn't have been available for the Allies anymore. The USA supplied GB with its oil. But oil from the Middle East was probably used to supply British armies on the Asian front.

6) The supply lines of the English armies regarding their Asian empire would have been much longer. Thus it would have been much difficult for them to win battles against Japon's forces.

7) There wouldn't have been the invasion of Sicily, Italy and South of France. And Hitler wouldn't have had to send tons of material and soldiers in order to defend these areas. And Hitler had to know that there was an important danger on this side, since England controlled the Mediterranean Sea.

8) Thus, the war would have lasted longer. It would have been more difficult and longer for the Allies to win. Or the plan of Jewish leaders would have been less coherent.

So, because of the troops and material economized, the access to Middle East oil (and the loss of this oil for the Allies), the strategic implication about the war against Russia, the possible loss of his Asian empire for England, controlling the strait of Gibraltar was absolutely crucial for Hitler.

But, as Hitler was in fact a Zionist jew, he had to avoid obtaining the control of it.

The armistice of 1940 : the strange clemency of the jew Hitler toward France

There is another discrepancy which, among other things, has to do with the possible takeover of the strait of Gibraltar from Hitler. It's about the armistice between Germany and France after the defeat of French armies in 1940.

The treaty is quite bizarre. Hitler let a free zone for French people in the south of France (representing nearly half of the French territory) and he let them their colonies. The French armies were completely defeated. So, he could have invaded the entire territory of France and said "now, all your possessions belong to me". French government couldn't have said anything to that. But no, he decides to let a free zone. And he decides also to let them their colony. A very strange clemency.

But, when you know Hitler was a zionist jew and you observe the north African map, you understand why Hitler the jew did that.

France possessed colonies at this time in North Africa. They possessed Tunisia, Algeria, AND Morocco. And Morocco is at the south side of the strait of Gibraltar.

So, if Hitler had decided not to be clement, and to take every French possessions and territories (by an imposed treaty), he would have also taken Morocco. And then, he would have controlled the strait of Gibraltar. Spain controlled a thin band of the north of the Morocco territory, but the French territory was largely near enough of the strait of Gibraltar to let Hitler be able to control it without invading the Spanish protectorate. But Hitler could have also invaded the Spanish protectorate. Spain couldn't have stopped the German armies.

And what would have happened if Hitler had controlled the strait? Germany would have controlled the entire Mediterranean Sea, and all the north of Africa. Then, they wouldn't have had to keep large forces in the south of Europe and in North Africa. They could have invade Iraq an take his oil. England would have been very far from his Indian colonies.

And at this time (September 1940), England was unable to prevent this from happening. So, there was nobody to stop Hitler from invading French (and eventually Spanish) Morocco.

Thus, as Hitler was a jew, he had to show such a strange clemency toward France, and to let them keep the south of France and all their colonies. Without this clemency, Germany would have been stronger and England weaker. And it would have been longer to finish the faked wwII. Or the events would have been less coherent and thus less believable.

It also explains why the German armies didn't rush toward Morocco (and didn't install a simple defensive line against English armies. English armies which would have been defenseless once the strait of Gibraltar controlled, because of a lack of supplies) instead of trying to obliterate English armies when they decided to fight in North Africa (February 1941).

So by not invading Morocco in 1940 or in February 1941, Hitler let England the time to rebuild its forces and to be able (with the USA), to invade Morocco (in November 1942). And all this was planned from the beginning.

And this discrepancy is even more important than the one about Hitler not forcing Spain to give him the control of the strait of Gibraltar, or the one about not invading Spain. It shows even more clearly that Hitler was in fact a traitor who acted intentionally to avoid taking control of the strait. The case of Spain was already extremely shady. But the fact that he also avoided taking control of French North Africa during two years and a half leaves no doubt about his real nature.

Why the jews Franco and Salazar were put in power

If the jews Franco and Salazar were put in power by Jewish leaders, it was to give a reason for Hitler to not attack these countries during WWII (especially Spain). If those two countries had been republics, they would have presented a threat for Hitler, just because of the possibility of a secret alliance with England and the USA in order to allow them to invade the European continent. So, just to avoid this possible threat, Hitler could have decided to invade those countries.
 

And even without considering them as enemies, Hitler wouldn't have got any scruple or hesitation to invade them in order to control the strait of Gibraltar, which was a crucial strategic point in the war against England.

But if those countries were semi-allies, because they were more or less in the same ideological camp, Jewish leaders could justify the fact that Hitler didn't invade them. The idea mainstream Medias sell to us is that Hitler was a sentimentalist and a man of honor, thus he couldn't attack his former ally. Without those moral problems, he would have surely tried to take control of the strait of Gibraltar by a way or another. So, it prevents people from thinking that the behavior of Hitler toward Spain was very strange.
 

But, even with this explanation, this is still extremely shady. Franco was in debt with the Axis. Without the help of Hitler and Mussolini, he would never have won the civil war. Hitler should have been very upset about that. And Hitler wasn't sentimental at all toward his former allies during the night of the long knives (just 6 or 7 years before). So, he should have shown no mercy toward Franco. He would have said "you give me the strait of Gibraltar, or I invade Spain in just one month and I kill you when it's finished". And between September 1940 and July 1941, Hitler had all his forces unemployed. So, his entire army was available to invade Spain. Even with only a quarter of German forces, the invasion would have taken only three weeks.

Almost no books about jews or Freemasons plots under the Hitler's reign

Another discrepancy about Hitler and the nazis is that you almost don't have any book about the jews and their plots, or about Freemasons.

Nazis were in power during 12 years (between 1933 and 1945), and there is almost not even one book about the subject.

Whereas if Hitler and the nazis had been for real, we should have dozens of very well documented books, edited in hundred of thousand of copies, all traduced in many languages.

Imagine all the secrets about jews which would have been accessible with all the power of the Nazi state and the knowledge of the secret police. And it would have been true not only for Germany and Italy, but after 1940, it would also have been true for France, Belgium, Poland, Czechoslovakia, etc.., etc... The German Secret Services could also have used their power to learn secrets about jews and Freemasons of Great Britain, USSR and the USA. So, people should have gained access to completely hidden informations.

But if Hitler and the top ranked nazis were in fact jews, it becomes completely normal.

Events pushing Germans to vote for Hitler were staged by Jewish leaders

Of course, many events from the 20's and 30's were made with the goal of pushing people to vote for Hitler.

1) The German revolution was made of course to provoke a change of government (empire to republic). But the secondary goal was to create a hatred from goys toward jews with the theory of the stab in the back defended later by the nazi's. And of course, it allowed Nazis to present communism and jews as enemies to German people.

2) The treaty of Versailles and the reparations were made to make German people displeased and to make them feel discontent toward English and French governments.

3) The hyperinflation of 1923 was voluntarily created in order to ruin a part of the upper middle class, and so, to make them very angry. The other goal was probably to  suppress the debt of the German government. Being liberated from the debt, it was then easier for them to make a rearmament (also with the help of jewish money).

We can find in Wikipedia informations about the fact that hyperinflation was very favorable to Hitler.

"Although the inflation ended with the introduction of the Rentenmark and the Weimar Republic continued for a decade afterwards, hyperinflation is widely believed to have contributed to the Nazi takeover of Germany and Adolf Hitler's rise to power. Adolf Hitler himself in his book, Mein Kampf, makes many references to the German debt and the negative consequences that brought about the inevitability of "National Socialism". The inflation also raised doubts about the competence of liberal institutions, especially amongst a middle class who had held cash savings and bonds. It also produced resentment of bankers and speculators, whom the government and press blamed for the inflation.[16] Many of them were Jews, and some Germans called the hyperinflated Weimar banknotes Jew Confetti".

4) The Ruhr invasion in 1923 and 1924 (officially made to oblige German government to pay the reparations), was another action made to produce discontent in the German population.

5) Same thing, the stock market crash of 1929 and the great depression which followed were made, among other things, with the goal of provoking the ruin of the German upper middle class, the impoverishment of the middle class and also provoking a massive amount of unemployment, thus creating even more discontent.

6) All the informations about the involvement of jews in the Russian revolution were given to increase the resentment against jews. We can notice that after 1940, when nazism was no more necessary, suddenly, we haven't informations about the jews in USSR anymore. Some people will say it's because jews were expelled from power by Stalin. But when jewish leaders have the power, they never let it go so easily. So, it's obvious that jews were still possessing the power after Stalin. And then, we should have informations about them.

World War I was staged by Jewish leaders also

I have already presented the plan behind ww2. They have put the jew Hitler in power in order to oblige everyday jews to go to Israel. After losing everything and being in the suddenly hostile USSR after the war, the choice of going to Israel seemed a quite good deal for them.

But Jewish leaders were obliged to make a plan in two parts. They couldn't have a Hitler all of a sudden. And for their ww2 plan, they had to control every important countries. And it seems that, in 1914, Russia was not into control yet. Great Britain was, France was, USA were, Germany and Austria most probably were. But it seems that it was not the case of Russia.

Or maybe it was. But they had to justify the future hatred against jews and Russia (which had become communist at this time) from the future nazi government. So, even if it was in control, they had to destroy the Russian government and to replace it by one with a very visible domination from jews.

So they had to create a first European war in order to create the conditions of success for the ww2 plan and finally for the creation of Israel.

So, with ww1, they were able to :

1) Justify the rise of Hitler because of the Versailles treaty, the poverty caused by the war (and by the jews after the collapse stocks markets of October 1929), the supposed stab in the back from jews in 1918, and the communist-jewish menace from USSR.

2) Justify the war against the now communist and dominated by jews USSR in 1940.

3) They were also able to create the condition of existence for Israel in the middle-east. The Turkish empire was too big and too powerful for the future Israel. They had to split it into several pieces in order to have only countries with little or average size and power. With ww1, they were able to justify the collapse of the Turkish empire in 1920.

With this new interpretation of those events, we can also understand why wwI lasted 4 years. In fact, in Europe, the goal of the war was to create revolutions in Russia and Germany. And the plan of jewish leaders was to explain them by the fact that people were fed up with the war. So the war had to last quite a long time in order to explain revolts from people. It had to last at least 3 years to explain in a convincing way the Russian revolution.

But, as the Russian revolution allowed Germany to transfer its armies from the east to the west, thus increasing greatly his forces against French/English armies, the war needed to last longer than 3 years. German armies had to win some more times in 1918 before beginning to lose. And they had to begin to lose. Because otherwise, the German revolution wouldn't have been believable. A revolution when a country is winning, it is quite bizarre. It's less bizarre when it is loosing. So, this added nearly one year of war after the Russian revolution.

In fact, jewish leaders ended the war quite too quickly, because the change in the balance of forces was too quick to be honest. In marsh 1918, German armies got reinforcements from east troops. Between marsh and July 1918, they were still able to make large breakthroughs. But, suddenly, in august, it was finished. The allies were making German armies retreat everywhere.

Anyway, with Germany beginning to retreat a little bit, they were able to launch the German revolution (in 10/30/1918 at Kiel). Once again, this operation was done too fast not to be something staged. In only 12 days, the revolution had succeed and Guillaume II was fleeing toward Netherlands (11/10/1918). In fact, it was even better than that. Because, until the 11/6/1918, the revolution was limited to Kiel. So, in only 4 days, the revolution had succeeded and Guillaume II was fleeing. A little to incredible.
 

They were obliged to have a revolution in Germany in order to explain the rise of Hitler. Without it, the empire would have been still in place, and Hitler couldn't have come to power (since there would have been no election for supreme power). Or it would have been much difficult to explain. Jewish leaders were obliged to have a republic to be able to have Hitler as the chancellor 15 years later.

The revolution also allowed them to end the war sooner. Without it, they would have been obliged to have a military victory. And it would have been much longer (may be 1 or 2 more years). Or it would have been less logical.

Of course, as Jewish leaders didn't need the war anymore after the German revolution, they could end it right away. But maybe another reason forced them to end the war very quickly after the German revolution. As Jewish leaders like symbols and numerology, maybe they wanted to finish the war the 11/11/1918 (number eleven is important for them, as we have known it since 9/11 events). So, in order to fit with this date, they were pressed to end the war quicker than they would probably have done if they hadn't got this numerical symbol in mind.

The revolution also permitted jewish leaders to advance the stab in the back theory, which made German people hostile toward jews. This was another explanation of the rise of Hitler.

So, in fact, the war lasted a long time not because the defense was too strong at this time (thus preventing any breakthrough into the enemy lines), but because jewish leaders needed it to last enough time to be able to explain de Russian and the German revolutions.

And all those stupid bloody attacks with only a gain of 1 or 2 kms and 100.000 deads each time were also made with the goal of justifying the discontent from troops and also civilians. And thus justifying Russian and German revolutions.

It also allows Jewish leaders to explain the hatred for war from French and English people and government during the 20's and the 30's, thus explaining their passivity against Germany's rearmament, about the expansion wars from Hitler, and the strategy of "defense only" from the French government (which allows them to explain the fact that the Allied armies lost in 1940).

The shady things about Hitler sustaining the idea he was a zionist jew

There are many things which are much too shady about Hitler and which sustain the idea he was jew working for more powerful jewish leaders and that all those events were faked and planned.

1) First of all, in a country dominated by jews as was Germany during the 20's and the 30's, it would have been impossible for a hostile goy like Hitler to come to power. When they control a country, jewish leaders don't let hostile goyims take back the power. So, the rise of Hitler is unbelievable, especially in such a short period of time.

2) The reaction of Hitler about Dunkirk is also incredible. He can capture the entire English army. But what does he do ? He let them flee. What !!? And the Hitler's pretext is that he had a great respect for England ! Wtf !!? No, only a traitor acts like that. A real nazi would never have done that.

He did that because he was a zionist jew. And as the war was a fake one, he had to let the english army flee. Otherwise, England couldn't have continued the war. And the USA couldn't have made the D-day and won the war with the USSR as it was planned.

3) Hitler knew a two-front war was something he had to avoid at all costs. He told many times that it was that which had lead to the defeat during WWI. But what does he do ? He attacks USSR before having destroyed England, thus creating a... two-front war.

4) Hitler doesn't invade the strait of Gibraltar, which would have made him the master of the Mediterranean sea, thus preventing the battles of north Africa, and also the invasion of Italy and of the south of France. The communication lines between England and its empire (like India), would have been much more extended.

Maybe he would have been obliged to invade Spain also. But without the threat of an invasion in the south of Europe, he would have been able to remove troops from other areas, like Greece. And as Spain was exhausted by the war of 1936 (which had ended in 1939), it would have been very easy to defeat it.


Another one than myself has seen other discrepancies :

5) "The Jew Hitler refuses to even feint an attack on Britain to draw the British navy to the channel, were it could be obliterated by aircraft".

Very relevant. England could prevent a landing with their fleet. But their fleet could have been destroyed by the german aircraft.

6) "The Jew Hitler declares war on the U.S., even though he was no more obliged to declare war on the U.S. than Japan was obliged to declare war on the Soviet Union, which Germany had been fighting since June 1941. Japan never declared war on the Soviet Union."

7) "The Jew Hitler (against the advice of all his generals) single-handedly saves Moscow by ordering army group "Center" to stop its advance on Moscow".

8) "The Jew Hitler tells the Soviets an attack will occur at Kursk. The Jew Hitler delays the attack for more than four months, until the Soviets have built defensive lines eight deep. The Soviets concentrate 1,300,000 soldiers with 3,600 tanks, 20,000 artillery pieces, including 6,000 76mm anti-tank guns, and 2,400 aircraft in and around Kursk. An attack anywhere other than Kursk would be fatal for the Soviets, but the Soviets seem to know that the attack will come only at Kursk."

They knew it because the war was a fake one, planned by the jewish leaders.

9) "The Jew Hitler orders German troops to attack the most heavily defended lines ever constructed, at Kursk".

"The Jew Hitler is amazed by the supermen of the elite SS Panzer Korps Liebstandarte, who, in the south, break through all eight defensive lines and take on the Soviet reserve tank battalions".

"Less than two weeks into the offensive, worried that the Liebstandarte might win the battle for the Germans, the Jew Hitler strips this elite group of their tanks and ships them to Northern Italy, where they sit on their hands for some months before returning to the eastern front. The pretext of the Sicily invasion is used".

As there was enough jews in the concentration camps, Hitler's mission was over, and then, he had to loose the war. And the unexpected success of the SS Panzer Korps Liebstandarte was not at all a part of the plan. So, he sent them far away.

And, of course, it was not because he was caring for his troops. In many other occasions, orders were to be killed rather than retreating.

This stupid strategy of being killed rather than retreating was also a part of the jewish plan. With an elastic defense, the war could have last two or three more years. But jewish leaders didn't need the war anymore. So, Hitler had to choose a stupid strategy which would accelerate the end of the war.

10) "The Jew Hitler refuses total mobilisation of the German people, even though the munitions factories cried out for manpower and all his enemies had recruited woman into the work force. The Jew Hitler never bothered to use half the potential German labor force."

11) "And do you think (the Jew) Roosevelt would have forced the Japanese into the very destructive Pacific war, if he hadn't been certain Hitler would declare war on the United States? How was Roosevelt so sure Hitler would declare war on the United States. What if Hitler had just said, "Piss off, Roosevelt. Enjoy your little war against Japan." Then Roosevelt would have ended up just fighting the Japanese without being able to drag the United States into direct participation in the European war. ..... and it goes on and on ..... instance, after instance, of Hitler single-handedly losing the war for the Germans (and winning it for the Jews)."

 

A little summary about Hitler being a jew and the faked world war II

Usually, when you read that Hitler was a jew, you have only informations of suspicion about his mother, his jewish ministers and generals, etc... Sometimes, the paper is smarter and tells you that he was the creator of Israel. You can also be aware of the many discrepancies from Hitler (Dunkirk for example).

But, if you think a little bit, you fall quickly on the following inconsistency : if he was a jew, why did he sent the jews to the camps ? I don't speak of extermination of course. Everybody now knows what to think about that. I speak about the deportation itself. If he was a jew working for jewish leaders, he wouldn't have deported millions of jews into the camps.

So, you are blocked with this logical problem. But, hopefully, with the following analysis, the inconsistency is explained, and you can understand why Hitler had to be a jew. You are then absolutely sure that he was one of them.

Jewish leaders wanted to create Israel. They had made moves toward this goal since 1880. And since the 1920's, they had accelerated their actions to create Israel. Around 1920, it was clear that Israel would be created soon, near the 40's or the 50's.

BUT, they had a very big problem. They could steal the land of Palestine. It was very easy for them. But the jews were very well in Europe, stealing the wealth of the goys. So, jewish leader would have had only some thousands of jews going to Israel. And thus, the creation of Israel would have been a failure.

And, of course, jewish leaders couldn't oblige everyday jews to go to Palestine by force while explaining them that they made that in order to fulfill their goals. They just couldn't use military force and say the truth about their intentions. The average jew would have lost all faith in his leaders, and, feeling betrayed, would have come back to Europe as soon as possible.

They needed to use coercion and force (otherwise nothing would have been done), but the truth wasn't an option. So, they needed to make them : live miserably, lose their weilth, live in a state of fear ( even of losing their life), under constraint, lose faith even in a normal future. And, in front of that, they had to offer them a paradisiac live in Palestine. They needed to use the stick and the carrot and so, to make their daily life a hell (in Germany, and after 1945 in USSR), and, on the other hand, to promise them a future in a little paradise (Israel). They needed them to have only one logical and voluntarily choice to make : go to Palestine.

But they had to make absolutely sure, at all costs, that everyday jews would never think that their beloved leaders were behind all this. They needed to make people think that all this had happened by the hazards of history, because of fatality. Remember, the devise of the Mossad is "by deception, thou shall make ware". It applies not only to goyims but also to everyday jews.

So, if jewish leaders wanted to have millions of jews going to Israel near 1940 or 1950, they desperately needed someone who would : steal the houses and wealth of the European jews, make them live in fear, and send them to camps, preferably in foreign countries so they would not know the language of the country.

And this leader had to be able to deport not only jews from his own country, but also from other European countries. So, he had to make wars against other European countries, and to win them for some time (before loosing when the deportation work had been done).

Jewish leaders also had to make sure that other countries would limit the immigration of jews toward them, in order to oblige jews to go to only one country : Israel. It was like obliging cattle to go to an enclosed plot of land by blocking all other exits.

So, of course, the rise of Hitler was not a hazard at all (and a wonderful one for jewish leaders). He was put at this place to realize the plan of the jewish leaders. And of course, he was a jew. Putting a goy at this place, with so much power would have been too dangerous for jewish leaders.

And the war was a faked one. Hitler has won at the beginning because it was planned like that ; because he had to put into camps not only german jews, but also jews from France, Belgium, Italy, Poland, Russia, etc... When the work was done, as the plan had been accomplished, Hitler began to lose the war (of course, he didn't commit suicide. He fled away and died much later).

And of course, USA and European countries refused many jews in order to oblige them to go to Israel.

The sudden and very incredible antisemitism of Stalin (who was in fact a jew), after 1942, was also planned for this goal. With Stalin being antisemitic, russian jews were pushed toward Israel.

We can think that the McCarthyism was also a part of that plan. USA couldn't be antisemitic after the war, so jewish leaders replaced that by anticommunism (European jews of that time were often communism, or communism friendly or had communist friends). Then, they were able to keep preventing jews from coming to the USA instead of going to Israel.

The fake opposition between England and the jews after the war, was also created for this reason (and also to keep feeding the paranoia of the common jews).

When you understand that, you can understand why the jews provoked World War I. When you watch the map of the middle east before the war, you see the big turkish empire. After the war, the empire has collapsed and is replaced by many countries of small and medium importance. It's sure that the turkish empire was a big problem for zionist leaders : 1) for the creation of Israel 2) and after that, for is survival (having medium or little countries in front of Israel is better than having a big empire). So, it's obvious that they had to destroy it before in order to be able to create Israel. WWI was also made to create the preconditions of the rise of Hitler and USSR, which were themselves preconditions to the creation of Israel.

Welcome

Welcome to the blog "Hitler the jew and the faked World War II",

I have already published a lot of things about Hitler being a jew and the faked world war II (you can find them here and here). But it was mainly on forums. And you never know what can happen to them, thus the reason of this blog. A blog has also a better visibility.

About Hitler being a jew and the faked wwII, I have brought quite a few new things:

1) I give what I think is the true reason of all this (Jewish leaders wanted to create Israel, but the everyday jews wouldn't have followed them. So Jewish leaders had to force them to go there). And this find enable to understand the rest of the history. With other authors, you can sometimes find that Hitler was the creator of Israel, but never the core reason, the reason which forced Jewish leaders to do all that
2) I give the reason why Hitler had to be a jew, regardless of all the unverifiable stories about him being the son of a Rothschild
3) I give some new ideas about the military et strategic mistakes of Hitler
4) I explain the reason why allied countries have closed their frontiers to jews before world war II
5) I explain the McCarthyism
6) I explain the very strange fall of the Jewish power in USSR after 1942
7) I also explain World War I. I show that it was also a war created by Jewish leaders (something you can sometimes find here and there, mostly evocated in two or three lines, but never with any explanation about the real reason of the war, nor with any details)
8) I explain why the south of France wasn't invaded by Hitler before the fall of 1942
9) I give the reason why you can find stories about Hitler being a jew as far as 1936
10) I explain why Franco didn't make an alliance with Hitler during WWII
11) I explain why USSR was given half of Europe after World War II
12) I explain why the war lasted for years and not eight or ten years, nor two years
13) I explain the fact that everyday jews were sent in concentration camps (which become strange when you begin to think that Hitler was a jew and when you think that there wasn't any holocaust)
14) Etc…

One other thing. English is not my native language and even if my English is not bad, I am not fluent. So, you will find sometimes grammatical errors, strange construction of sentences, not perfectly appropriated words. But I hope it will be understandable most of the time.